CSIR NET Life Science Numerical Problems & Solutions Free

CSIR NET Life Sciences & Biotechnology: 150 Numerical and Analytical Practice Questions

Choose one option for each question. Questions run in a continuous sequence across all 14 syllabus units. When finished, select Check My Score, then open the Show Answers & Step-by-Step Solutions dropdown when you are ready to review your answers.

Numerical and Analytical Questions (1–150)

Unit 1: Structure and Function of Biomolecules

Q1. An enzyme converts 10 μmol substrate in 2 min. What is the average rate? (Model Sample Paper 2026)

A. 5.338 μmol/min B. 4.55 μmol/min C. 5 μmol/min D. 4.775 μmol/min

Q2. A protein has 4 α-helices with 4 residues each. How many residues are in these helices? (Model Sample Paper 2026)

A. 15.28 residues B. 16 residues C. 16.72 residues D. 23.2 residues

Q3. A reaction releases 22 kJ for 5 mol of product. Find energy released per mol. (Model Sample Paper 2026)

A. 4.4 kJ/mol B. 4.301 kJ/mol C. 4.697 kJ/mol D. 3.806 kJ/mol

Q4. A solution contains 63 mg protein in 3 mL. Find its concentration. (Model Sample Paper 2026)

A. 21.473 mg/mL B. 30.45 mg/mL C. 21 mg/mL D. 20.055 mg/mL

Q5. A sample contains 140 nmol ligand and 20 nmol is bound. What percentage is bound? (Model Sample Paper 2026)

A. 12.357 % B. 14.607 % C. 13.643 % D. 14.286 %

Q6. An enzyme converts 15 μmol substrate in 7 min. What is the average rate? (Model Sample Paper 2026)

A. 2.293 μmol/min B. 1.993 μmol/min C. 2.143 μmol/min D. 3.643 μmol/min

Q7. A protein has 9 α-helices with 5 residues each. How many residues are in these helices? (Model Sample Paper 2026)

A. 38.925 residues B. 46.013 residues C. 41.962 residues D. 45 residues

Q8. A reaction releases 27 kJ for 6 mol of product. Find energy released per mol. (Model Sample Paper 2026)

A. 4.5 kJ/mol B. 3.893 kJ/mol C. 4.399 kJ/mol D. 4.702 kJ/mol

Q9. A solution contains 68 mg protein in 4 mL. Find its concentration. (Model Sample Paper 2026)

A. 15.47 mg/mL B. 17.765 mg/mL C. 15.852 mg/mL D. 17 mg/mL

Q10. A sample contains 190 nmol ligand and 25 nmol is bound. What percentage is bound? (Model Sample Paper 2026)

A. 13.158 % B. 12.566 % C. 13.75 % D. 12.27 %

Q11. An enzyme converts 20 μmol substrate in 12 min. What is the average rate? (Model Sample Paper 2026)

A. 1.667 μmol/min B. 1.517 μmol/min C. 1.742 μmol/min D. 1.217 μmol/min

Unit 2: Cellular Organization

Q12. A cell population increases from 20 to 80 cells. What is the fold increase? (Model Sample Paper 2026)

A. 3.73 fold B. 4.27 fold C. 4 fold D. 3.64 fold

Q13. 13 vesicles each transport 3 molecules. How many molecules are transported? (Model Sample Paper 2026)

A. 39 molecules B. 41.633 molecules C. 38.123 molecules D. 35.49 molecules

Q14. A cell has 84 chromosomes before division and distributes them equally among 4 daughter cells. How many per cell in this hypothetical distribution? (Model Sample Paper 2026)

A. 20.055 chromosomes B. 30.45 chromosomes C. 21.473 chromosomes D. 21 chromosomes

Q15. An organelle occupies 10% of a 56 μm³ cell. Find organelle volume. (Model Sample Paper 2026)

A. 5.978 μm³ B. 5.474 μm³ C. 5.348 μm³ D. 5.6 μm³

Q16. 29 labeled particles cross a membrane in 5 s. Find average transport rate. (Model Sample Paper 2026)

A. 6.191 particles/s B. 5.278 particles/s C. 5.539 particles/s D. 5.8 particles/s

Q17. A cell population increases from 25 to 125 cells. What is the fold increase? (Model Sample Paper 2026)

A. 5 fold B. 4.888 fold C. 4.55 fold D. 5.225 fold

Q18. 18 vesicles each transport 4 molecules. How many molecules are transported? (Model Sample Paper 2026)

A. 68.76 molecules B. 75.24 molecules C. 72 molecules D. 70.38 molecules

Q19. A cell has 94 chromosomes before division and distributes them equally among 5 daughter cells. How many per cell in this hypothetical distribution? (Model Sample Paper 2026)

A. 20.069 chromosomes B. 18.8 chromosomes C. 16.262 chromosomes D. 18.377 chromosomes

Q20. An organelle occupies 11% of a 66 μm³ cell. Find organelle volume. (Model Sample Paper 2026)

A. 7.75 μm³ B. 7.26 μm³ C. 7.097 μm³ D. 6.933 μm³

Q21. 34 labeled particles cross a membrane in 6 s. Find average transport rate. (Model Sample Paper 2026)

A. 6.05 particles/s B. 5.284 particles/s C. 5.157 particles/s D. 5.667 particles/s

Q22. A cell population increases from 30 to 180 cells. What is the fold increase? (Model Sample Paper 2026)

A. 6 fold B. 5.865 fold C. 5.19 fold D. 6.135 fold

Unit 3: Fundamental Processes

Q23. An RNA polymerase synthesizes 120 nucleotides in 3 s. Find average synthesis rate. (Model Sample Paper 2026)

A. 40 nt/s B. 37.3 nt/s C. 41.8 nt/s D. 36.4 nt/s

Q24. An open reading frame has 330 nucleotides including one stop codon. How many amino acids does it encode? (Model Sample Paper 2026)

A. 94.285 amino acids B. 109 amino acids C. 106.547 amino acids D. 113.905 amino acids

Q25. A DNA fragment of 22 kb is cut into 2 equal fragments. What is each fragment length? (Model Sample Paper 2026)

A. 9.515 kb B. 11.742 kb C. 10.505 kb D. 11 kb

Q26. An assay counts 11 mutations in 4 × 10³ bases. How many mutations per 1000 bases? (Model Sample Paper 2026)

A. 2.825 per 1000 bases B. 2.75 per 1000 bases C. 2.3 per 1000 bases D. 2.675 per 1000 bases

Q27. A transcript has 44 exons, each of length 5 nucleotides. What is total exon length? (Model Sample Paper 2026)

A. 229.9 nt B. 210.1 nt C. 215.05 nt D. 220 nt

Q28. An RNA polymerase synthesizes 170 nucleotides in 4 s. Find average synthesis rate. (Model Sample Paper 2026)

A. 44.413 nt/s B. 61.625 nt/s C. 40.587 nt/s D. 42.5 nt/s

Q29. An open reading frame has 480 nucleotides including one stop codon. How many amino acids does it encode? (Model Sample Paper 2026)

A. 137.535 amino acids B. 159 amino acids C. 148.268 amino acids D. 166.155 amino acids

Q30. A DNA fragment of 27 kb is cut into 3 equal fragments. What is each fragment length? (Model Sample Paper 2026)

A. 8.595 kb B. 8.393 kb C. 9.607 kb D. 9 kb

Q31. An assay counts 16 mutations in 5 × 10³ bases. How many mutations per 1000 bases? (Model Sample Paper 2026)

A. 3.275 per 1000 bases B. 2.9 per 1000 bases C. 2.975 per 1000 bases D. 3.2 per 1000 bases

Q32. A transcript has 49 exons, each of length 6 nucleotides. What is total exon length? (Model Sample Paper 2026)

A. 280.77 nt B. 294 nt C. 307.23 nt D. 426.3 nt

Q33. An RNA polymerase synthesizes 220 nucleotides in 5 s. Find average synthesis rate. (Model Sample Paper 2026)

A. 42.02 nt/s B. 44 nt/s C. 41.03 nt/s D. 46.97 nt/s

Unit 4: Cell Communication and Cell Signaling

Q34. Of 100 receptors, 20% are occupied. How many receptors are occupied? (Model Sample Paper 2026)

A. 29 receptors B. 19.1 receptors C. 20.9 receptors D. 20 receptors

Q35. A signaling response increases from 31 units to 93 units. What is the fold change? (Model Sample Paper 2026)

A. 3.075 fold B. 3 fold C. 2.85 fold D. 2.775 fold

Q36. A kinase phosphorylates 52 substrates in 5 min. Find the rate. (Model Sample Paper 2026)

A. 8.996 substrates/min B. 11.102 substrates/min C. 10.4 substrates/min D. 9.698 substrates/min

Q37. 10% of 63 immune cells express a marker. How many cells express it? (Model Sample Paper 2026)

A. 6.016 cells B. 6.725 cells C. 6.3 cells D. 9.135 cells

Q38. A second messenger concentration rises from 22 nM to 44 nM. Calculate the increase in nM. (Model Sample Paper 2026)

A. 20.515 nM B. 22 nM C. 22.99 nM D. 19.03 nM

Q39. Of 150 receptors, 25% are occupied. How many receptors are occupied? (Model Sample Paper 2026)

A. 39.188 receptors B. 35.812 receptors C. 37.5 receptors D. 36.656 receptors

Q40. A signaling response increases from 36 units to 144 units. What is the fold change? (Model Sample Paper 2026)

A. 4.27 fold B. 3.64 fold C. 4 fold D. 3.91 fold

Q41. A kinase phosphorylates 57 substrates in 6 min. Find the rate. (Model Sample Paper 2026)

A. 9.5 substrates/min B. 8.859 substrates/min C. 10.141 substrates/min D. 8.645 substrates/min

Q42. 11% of 68 immune cells express a marker. How many cells express it? (Model Sample Paper 2026)

A. 7.48 cells B. 7.143 cells C. 7.312 cells D. 7.817 cells

Q43. A second messenger concentration rises from 27 nM to 81 nM. Calculate the increase in nM. (Model Sample Paper 2026)

A. 55.215 nM B. 54 nM C. 46.71 nM D. 52.785 nM

Q44. Of 200 receptors, 30% are occupied. How many receptors are occupied? (Model Sample Paper 2026)

A. 54.6 receptors B. 62.7 receptors C. 60 receptors D. 57.3 receptors

Unit 5: Developmental Biology

Q45. 16 embryos each have 2 blastomeres. What is the total number of blastomeres? (Model Sample Paper 2026)

A. 34.16 cells B. 32 cells C. 29.12 cells D. 31.28 cells

Q46. Of 41 embryos, 4 develop normally. What percentage develop normally? (Model Sample Paper 2026)

A. 9.756 % B. 10.195 % C. 8.878 % D. 9.317 %

Q47. A tissue length increases from 14 mm to 17 mm. What is the percentage increase? (Model Sample Paper 2026)

A. 22.393 % B. 20.465 % C. 20.947 % D. 21.429 %

Q48. 33 progenitor cells undergo 5 divisions each, but each division replaces one cell with two. Assuming no death, what is the final cell count? (Model Sample Paper 2026)

A. 1056 cells B. 1127.28 cells C. 960.96 cells D. 1008.48 cells

Q49. A morphogen gradient decreases by 10 concentration units from an initial 54. What concentration remains? (Model Sample Paper 2026)

A. 45.98 units B. 42.02 units C. 44 units D. 40.04 units

Q50. 21 embryos each have 3 blastomeres. What is the total number of blastomeres? (Model Sample Paper 2026)

A. 65.835 cells B. 57.33 cells C. 61.583 cells D. 63 cells

Q51. Of 46 embryos, 5 develop normally. What percentage develop normally? (Model Sample Paper 2026)

A. 11.115 % B. 10.87 % C. 10.381 % D. 9.403 %

Q52. A tissue length increases from 19 mm to 23 mm. What is the percentage increase? (Model Sample Paper 2026)

A. 21.527 % B. 20.106 % C. 21.053 % D. 18.211 %

Q53. 38 progenitor cells undergo 6 divisions each, but each division replaces one cell with two. Assuming no death, what is the final cell count? (Model Sample Paper 2026)

A. 2267.84 cells B. 2432 cells C. 2541.44 cells D. 2322.56 cells

Q54. A morphogen gradient decreases by 11 concentration units from an initial 59. What concentration remains? (Model Sample Paper 2026)

A. 41.52 units B. 48 units C. 46.92 units D. 50.16 units

Q55. 26 embryos each have 4 blastomeres. What is the total number of blastomeres? (Model Sample Paper 2026)

A. 104 cells B. 101.66 cells C. 111.02 cells D. 94.64 cells

Unit 6: System Physiology – Plant

Q56. A leaf fixes 24 μmol CO₂ in 4 min. Find the mean fixation rate. (Model Sample Paper 2026)

A. 5.73 μmol/min B. 6 μmol/min C. 5.19 μmol/min D. 6.27 μmol/min

Q57. A plant takes up 61 mL water and loses 10 mL. What is net water gain? (Model Sample Paper 2026)

A. 48.705 mL B. 51 mL C. 44.115 mL D. 52.148 mL

Q58. A plant has 42 stomata in 5 mm². Calculate stomatal density. (Model Sample Paper 2026)

A. 7.266 stomata/mm² B. 8.967 stomata/mm² C. 8.4 stomata/mm² D. 8.022 stomata/mm²

Q59. A pigment absorbs 20% of 135 light units. How many units are absorbed? (Model Sample Paper 2026)

A. 24.57 units B. 26.392 units C. 27 units D. 27.608 units

Q60. A shoot grows 29 mm in 5 days. Find mean growth rate. (Model Sample Paper 2026)

A. 5.539 mm/day B. 5.93 mm/day C. 5.67 mm/day D. 5.8 mm/day

Q61. A leaf fixes 29 μmol CO₂ in 5 min. Find the mean fixation rate. (Model Sample Paper 2026)

A. 5.8 μmol/min B. 5.539 μmol/min C. 5.017 μmol/min D. 6.191 μmol/min

Q62. A plant takes up 66 mL water and loses 11 mL. What is net water gain? (Model Sample Paper 2026)

A. 51.288 mL B. 47.575 mL C. 55 mL D. 57.475 mL

Q63. A plant has 47 stomata in 6 mm². Calculate stomatal density. (Model Sample Paper 2026)

A. 8.185 stomata/mm² B. 7.481 stomata/mm² C. 7.833 stomata/mm² D. 7.304 stomata/mm²

Q64. A pigment absorbs 25% of 160 light units. How many units are absorbed? (Model Sample Paper 2026)

A. 34.6 units B. 39.1 units C. 42.7 units D. 40 units

Q65. A shoot grows 34 mm in 6 days. Find mean growth rate. (Model Sample Paper 2026)

A. 5.667 mm/day B. 8.217 mm/day C. 5.412 mm/day D. 5.922 mm/day

Q66. A leaf fixes 34 μmol CO₂ in 6 min. Find the mean fixation rate. (Model Sample Paper 2026)

A. 5.922 μmol/min B. 5.157 μmol/min C. 5.667 μmol/min D. 5.284 μmol/min

Unit 7: System Physiology – Animal

Q67. A heart beats 70 times per minute. How many beats occur in 5 min? (Model Sample Paper 2026)

A. 334.25 beats B. 350 beats C. 365.75 beats D. 342.125 beats

Q68. Cardiac output is 61 mL/s for 3 seconds. Find total volume pumped. (Model Sample Paper 2026)

A. 183 mL B. 191.235 mL C. 158.295 mL D. 170.648 mL

Q69. A patient inhales 92 L and exhales 15 L during a measured interval. What is the difference? (Model Sample Paper 2026)

A. 75.267 L B. 70.07 L C. 77 L D. 78.733 L

Q70. Urine production is 103 mL over 4 hours. Find average rate. (Model Sample Paper 2026)

A. 25.75 mL/hour B. 27.488 mL/hour C. 22.274 mL/hour D. 25.171 mL/hour

Q71. A muscle produces 84 N of force over an area of 10 cm². Find stress. (Model Sample Paper 2026)

A. 7.644 N/cm² B. 8.022 N/cm² C. 8.4 N/cm² D. 8.778 N/cm²

Q72. A heart beats 75 times per minute. How many beats occur in 6 min? (Model Sample Paper 2026)

A. 450 beats B. 389.25 beats C. 460.125 beats D. 429.75 beats

Q73. Cardiac output is 66 mL/s for 4 seconds. Find total volume pumped. (Model Sample Paper 2026)

A. 275.88 mL B. 252.12 mL C. 264 mL D. 382.8 mL

Q74. A patient inhales 97 L and exhales 16 L during a measured interval. What is the difference? (Model Sample Paper 2026)

A. 75.532 L B. 82.823 L C. 70.065 L D. 81 L

Q75. Urine production is 108 mL over 5 hours. Find average rate. (Model Sample Paper 2026)

A. 21.114 mL/hour B. 21.6 mL/hour C. 23.058 mL/hour D. 19.656 mL/hour

Q76. A muscle produces 89 N of force over an area of 11 cm². Find stress. (Model Sample Paper 2026)

A. 7.909 N/cm² B. 8.637 N/cm² C. 8.091 N/cm² D. 7.363 N/cm²

Q77. A heart beats 80 times per minute. How many beats occur in 7 min? (Model Sample Paper 2026)

A. 560 beats B. 547.4 beats C. 597.8 beats D. 484.4 beats

Unit 8: Inheritance Biology

Q78. In 100 offspring, 20% have the recessive phenotype. How many offspring are recessive? (Model Sample Paper 2026)

A. 20 offspring B. 19.55 offspring C. 18.2 offspring D. 20.9 offspring

Q79. 31 recombinants are observed among 62 progeny. What is recombination frequency? (Model Sample Paper 2026)

A. 50 % B. 53.375 % C. 47.75 % D. 45.5 %

Q80. A genetic cross produces 72 offspring with a 1:3 phenotypic ratio. How many are in the minority class? (Model Sample Paper 2026)

A. 18 offspring B. 19.215 offspring C. 15.57 offspring D. 16.785 offspring

Q81. In a sample of 63 alleles, 10 are allele A. Find A allele frequency as a percentage. (Model Sample Paper 2026)

A. 15.873 % B. 16.23 % C. 14.444 % D. 15.516 %

Q82. If a genetic map distance is 5 cM per segment, what is the total for 104 identical segments? (Model Sample Paper 2026)

A. 520 cM B. 473.2 cM C. 508.3 cM D. 555.1 cM

Q83. In 150 offspring, 25% have the recessive phenotype. How many offspring are recessive? (Model Sample Paper 2026)

A. 35.812 offspring B. 39.188 offspring C. 54.375 offspring D. 37.5 offspring

Q84. 36 recombinants are observed among 108 progeny. What is recombination frequency? (Model Sample Paper 2026)

A. 35.583 % B. 32.583 % C. 33.333 % D. 30.333 %

Q85. A genetic cross produces 115 offspring with a 1:4 phenotypic ratio. How many are in the minority class? (Model Sample Paper 2026)

A. 21.448 offspring B. 23 offspring C. 21.965 offspring D. 24.035 offspring

Q86. In a sample of 68 alleles, 11 are allele A. Find A allele frequency as a percentage. (Model Sample Paper 2026)

A. 16.176 % B. 15.448 % C. 16.54 % D. 15.812 %

Q87. If a genetic map distance is 6 cM per segment, what is the total for 109 identical segments? (Model Sample Paper 2026)

A. 639.285 cM B. 624.57 cM C. 668.715 cM D. 654 cM

Q88. In 200 offspring, 30% have the recessive phenotype. How many offspring are recessive? (Model Sample Paper 2026)

A. 55.95 offspring B. 64.05 offspring C. 57.3 offspring D. 60 offspring

Unit 9: Evolution and Diversity of Life Forms

Q89. A population contains 50 individuals across 5 species equally. Find individuals per species. (Model Sample Paper 2026)

A. 10.225 individuals/species B. 8.65 individuals/species C. 10 individuals/species D. 9.325 individuals/species

Q90. A clade has 110 sampled taxa, of which 10% share a trait. How many taxa share it? (Model Sample Paper 2026)

A. 11.495 taxa B. 10.01 taxa C. 10.505 taxa D. 11 taxa

Q91. A lineage has 32 observed substitutions across 3 million years. Find substitutions per million years. (Model Sample Paper 2026)

A. 11.147 substitutions/Myr B. 9.227 substitutions/Myr C. 9.947 substitutions/Myr D. 10.667 substitutions/Myr

Q92. A sample has 43 individuals and 5 genera. Find mean individuals per genus. (Model Sample Paper 2026)

A. 8.793 individuals/genus B. 7.826 individuals/genus C. 8.406 individuals/genus D. 8.6 individuals/genus

Q93. A fossil sample contains 84 specimens; 10 are identified as species X. What percent are species X? (Model Sample Paper 2026)

A. 11.905 % B. 10.834 % C. 12.441 % D. 11.637 %

Q94. A population contains 55 individuals across 6 species equally. Find individuals per species. (Model Sample Paper 2026)

A. 9.786 individuals/species B. 8.961 individuals/species C. 7.929 individuals/species D. 9.167 individuals/species

Q95. A clade has 160 sampled taxa, of which 15% share a trait. How many taxa share it? (Model Sample Paper 2026)

A. 20.76 taxa B. 22.92 taxa C. 25.08 taxa D. 24 taxa

Q96. A lineage has 37 observed substitutions across 4 million years. Find substitutions per million years. (Model Sample Paper 2026)

A. 9.874 substitutions/Myr B. 9.25 substitutions/Myr C. 9.042 substitutions/Myr D. 8.834 substitutions/Myr

Q97. A sample has 48 individuals and 6 genera. Find mean individuals per genus. (Model Sample Paper 2026)

A. 7.64 individuals/genus B. 7.46 individuals/genus C. 8 individuals/genus D. 8.36 individuals/genus

Q98. A fossil sample contains 89 specimens; 11 are identified as species X. What percent are species X? (Model Sample Paper 2026)

A. 13.194 % B. 11.248 % C. 12.36 % D. 11.804 %

Q99. A population contains 60 individuals across 7 species equally. Find individuals per species. (Model Sample Paper 2026)

A. 12.428 individuals/species B. 8.957 individuals/species C. 8.571 individuals/species D. 8.185 individuals/species

Unit 10: Ecology and Behavioural Biology

Q100. A population grows from 100 to 105 individuals. What is its percentage growth? (Model Sample Paper 2026)

A. 5.225 % B. 4.325 % C. 4.775 % D. 5 %

Q101. 81 organisms occupy 4 hectares. Find population density. (Model Sample Paper 2026)

A. 21.161 organisms/ha B. 18.427 organisms/ha C. 19.339 organisms/ha D. 20.25 organisms/ha

Q102. A predator consumes 32 prey in 5 days. Find average consumption rate. (Model Sample Paper 2026)

A. 6.832 prey/day B. 5.968 prey/day C. 5.536 prey/day D. 6.4 prey/day

Q103. A habitat contains 103 nests, of which 20 are occupied. Find occupancy percentage. (Model Sample Paper 2026)

A. 20.291 % B. 18.98 % C. 19.417 % D. 18.543 %

Q104. 44 individuals migrate out and 5 migrate in. What is the net population change from migration? (Model Sample Paper 2026)

A. -39 individuals B. -40.755 individuals C. -41.633 individuals D. -38.123 individuals

Q105. A population grows from 150 to 156 individuals. What is its percentage growth? (Model Sample Paper 2026)

A. 4 % B. 4.18 % C. 3.64 % D. 3.91 %

Q106. 86 organisms occupy 5 hectares. Find population density. (Model Sample Paper 2026)

A. 16.426 organisms/ha B. 16.039 organisms/ha C. 17.2 organisms/ha D. 17.974 organisms/ha

Q107. A predator consumes 37 prey in 6 days. Find average consumption rate. (Model Sample Paper 2026)

A. 6.028 prey/day B. 6.167 prey/day C. 5.334 prey/day D. 6.306 prey/day

Q108. A habitat contains 108 nests, of which 21 are occupied. Find occupancy percentage. (Model Sample Paper 2026)

A. 19.444 % B. 16.819 % C. 19.007 % D. 20.756 %

Q109. 49 individuals migrate out and 6 migrate in. What is the net population change from migration? (Model Sample Paper 2026)

A. -43 individuals B. -42.032 individuals C. -45.903 individuals D. -44.935 individuals

Q110. A population grows from 200 to 207 individuals. What is its percentage growth? (Model Sample Paper 2026)

A. 3.5 % B. 3.579 % C. 3.342 % D. 3.027 %

Unit 11: Bioinformatics and Computational Biology

Q111. A sequence alignment has 120 positions, of which 116 match. What is percent identity? (Model Sample Paper 2026)

A. 101.017 % B. 94.492 % C. 92.317 % D. 96.667 %

Q112. A dataset contains 51 sequences, each 5 kb long. What is total sequence length? (Model Sample Paper 2026)

A. 255 kb B. 220.575 kb C. 243.525 kb D. 272.212 kb

Q113. An algorithm processes 62 records in 3 s. Find processing throughput. (Model Sample Paper 2026)

A. 22.062 records/s B. 20.667 records/s C. 20.202 records/s D. 19.737 records/s

Q114. Of 103 predicted genes, 10 are validated. What is the validation percentage? (Model Sample Paper 2026)

A. 9.272 % B. 9.709 % C. 10.364 % D. 9.054 %

Q115. A sequence has 24 gaps across 4 aligned blocks. Find mean gaps per block. (Model Sample Paper 2026)

A. 5.73 gaps/block B. 6 gaps/block C. 5.865 gaps/block D. 6.27 gaps/block

Q116. A sequence alignment has 170 positions, of which 165 match. What is percent identity? (Model Sample Paper 2026)

A. 94.875 % B. 101.427 % C. 97.059 % D. 92.691 %

Q117. A dataset contains 56 sequences, each 6 kb long. What is total sequence length? (Model Sample Paper 2026)

A. 336 kb B. 487.2 kb C. 358.68 kb D. 320.88 kb

Q118. An algorithm processes 67 records in 4 s. Find processing throughput. (Model Sample Paper 2026)

A. 15.242 records/s B. 16.75 records/s C. 17.504 records/s D. 16.373 records/s

Q119. Of 108 predicted genes, 11 are validated. What is the validation percentage? (Model Sample Paper 2026)

A. 9.498 % B. 10.414 % C. 10.185 % D. 9.268 %

Q120. A sequence has 29 gaps across 5 aligned blocks. Find mean gaps per block. (Model Sample Paper 2026)

A. 5.017 gaps/block B. 5.67 gaps/block C. 6.191 gaps/block D. 5.8 gaps/block

Unit 12: Biochemical Engineering and Industrial Biotechnology

Q121. A bioreactor produces 100 g biomass in 5 h. Find average productivity. (Model Sample Paper 2026)

A. 17.3 g/hour B. 20 g/hour C. 20.45 g/hour D. 18.65 g/hour

Q122. From 81 g feedstock, 20 g product is recovered. Find mass yield percentage. (Model Sample Paper 2026)

A. 23.58 % B. 35.802 % C. 26.358 % D. 24.691 %

Q123. A fermenter receives 42 L medium at 4 L/hour. How long does filling take? (Model Sample Paper 2026)

A. 10.264 hours B. 10.736 hours C. 9.555 hours D. 10.5 hours

Q124. A separation recovers 113 g of a product from 123 g initially present. Find recovery percentage. (Model Sample Paper 2026)

A. 91.87 % B. 93.937 % C. 87.736 % D. 89.803 %

Q125. A culture produces 29 g metabolite in 5 L broth. Find titer. (Model Sample Paper 2026)

A. 5.409 g/L B. 5.8 g/L C. 6.061 g/L D. 5.278 g/L

Q126. A bioreactor produces 150 g biomass in 6 h. Find average productivity. (Model Sample Paper 2026)

A. 26.125 g/hour B. 25 g/hour C. 21.625 g/hour D. 23.875 g/hour

Q127. From 86 g feedstock, 21 g product is recovered. Find mass yield percentage. (Model Sample Paper 2026)

A. 24.419 % B. 35.408 % C. 23.32 % D. 25.518 %

Q128. A fermenter receives 47 L medium at 5 L/hour. How long does filling take? (Model Sample Paper 2026)

A. 8.977 hours B. 9.611 hours C. 8.554 hours D. 9.4 hours

Q129. A separation recovers 117 g of a product from 128 g initially present. Find recovery percentage. (Model Sample Paper 2026)

A. 91.406 % B. 87.293 % C. 89.349 % D. 95.519 %

Q130. A culture produces 34 g metabolite in 6 L broth. Find titer. (Model Sample Paper 2026)

A. 5.539 g/L B. 4.902 g/L C. 5.667 g/L D. 5.795 g/L

Unit 13: Advances in Biotechnology

Q131. Of 100 edited cells, 20 have the intended edit. What is editing efficiency? (Model Sample Paper 2026)

A. 20.9 % B. 18.65 % C. 20 % D. 18.2 %

Q132. A library has 41 constructs, each with 4 barcodes. How many barcodes in total? (Model Sample Paper 2026)

A. 156.62 barcodes B. 164 barcodes C. 237.8 barcodes D. 171.38 barcodes

Q133. A screening pipeline analyzes 62 samples in 3 h. Find throughput. (Model Sample Paper 2026)

A. 21.597 samples/hour B. 19.737 samples/hour C. 20.202 samples/hour D. 20.667 samples/hour

Q134. A synthetic pathway yields 53 mg product; purification loses 10 mg. How much remains? (Model Sample Paper 2026)

A. 44.935 mg B. 43 mg C. 39.13 mg D. 42.032 mg

Q135. A sequencing run obtains 34 million reads from 5 samples equally. Find mean reads per sample. (Model Sample Paper 2026)

A. 7.106 million reads/sample B. 6.494 million reads/sample C. 6.188 million reads/sample D. 6.8 million reads/sample

Q136. Of 150 edited cells, 21 have the intended edit. What is editing efficiency? (Model Sample Paper 2026)

A. 13.37 % B. 14.315 % C. 14 % D. 20.3 %

Q137. A library has 46 constructs, each with 5 barcodes. How many barcodes in total? (Model Sample Paper 2026)

A. 214.475 barcodes B. 230 barcodes C. 235.175 barcodes D. 198.95 barcodes

Q138. A screening pipeline analyzes 67 samples in 4 h. Find throughput. (Model Sample Paper 2026)

A. 15.619 samples/hour B. 17.881 samples/hour C. 16.75 samples/hour D. 15.996 samples/hour

Q139. A synthetic pathway yields 58 mg product; purification loses 11 mg. How much remains? (Model Sample Paper 2026)

A. 45.943 mg B. 47 mg C. 49.115 mg D. 40.655 mg

Q140. A sequencing run obtains 39 million reads from 6 samples equally. Find mean reads per sample. (Model Sample Paper 2026)

A. 6.207 million reads/sample B. 6.354 million reads/sample C. 6.5 million reads/sample D. 6.939 million reads/sample

Unit 14: Methods in Biology

Q141. A microscope image shows a 100 μm object as 500 μm. What is linear magnification? (Model Sample Paper 2026)

A. 5.338 × B. 5 × C. 4.325 × D. 4.888 ×

Q142. A chromatography run separates 61 mg compound into 3 equal fractions. Find mass per fraction. (Model Sample Paper 2026)

A. 19.418 mg/fraction B. 18.961 mg/fraction C. 20.333 mg/fraction D. 20.79 mg/fraction

Q143. An assay tests 82 samples; 20 are positive. Find positivity percentage. (Model Sample Paper 2026)

A. 24.939 % B. 24.39 % C. 35.365 % D. 23.292 %

Q144. A centrifuge processes 43 mL in 5 min. Find mean throughput. (Model Sample Paper 2026)

A. 8.406 mL/min B. 7.826 mL/min C. 8.6 mL/min D. 9.181 mL/min

Q145. A spectrophotometer measures absorbance 0.54 for a sample diluted 5-fold. Assuming linearity, what is the undiluted equivalent absorbance? (Model Sample Paper 2026)

A. 2.625 AU B. 2.55 AU C. 2.85 AU D. 2.7 AU

Q146. A microscope image shows a 150 μm object as 900 μm. What is linear magnification? (Model Sample Paper 2026)

A. 6 × B. 5.73 × C. 5.19 × D. 6.405 ×

Q147. A chromatography run separates 66 mg compound into 4 equal fractions. Find mass per fraction. (Model Sample Paper 2026)

A. 14.273 mg/fraction B. 16.129 mg/fraction C. 16.5 mg/fraction D. 17.614 mg/fraction

Q148. An assay tests 87 samples; 21 are positive. Find positivity percentage. (Model Sample Paper 2026)

A. 25.224 % B. 24.138 % C. 23.595 % D. 20.879 %

Q149. A centrifuge processes 48 mL in 6 min. Find mean throughput. (Model Sample Paper 2026)

A. 7.28 mL/min B. 7.64 mL/min C. 8.54 mL/min D. 8 mL/min

Q150. A spectrophotometer measures absorbance 0.59 for a sample diluted 6-fold. Assuming linearity, what is the undiluted equivalent absorbance? (Model Sample Paper 2026)

A. 3.54 AU B. 3.381 AU C. 3.301 AU D. 3.62 AU

Show Answers & Step-by-Step Solutions

Answer Key and Step-by-Step Solutions

Q1. Correct answer: C — 5 μmol/min

Rate = amount/time = 10/2.

Q2. Correct answer: B — 16 residues

Multiply 4 × 4.

Q3. Correct answer: A — 4.4 kJ/mol

Energy per mol = 22/5.

Q4. Correct answer: C — 21 mg/mL

Concentration = 63/3.

Q5. Correct answer: D — 14.286 %

Bound percentage = (20/140) × 100.

Q6. Correct answer: C — 2.143 μmol/min

Rate = amount/time = 15/7.

Q7. Correct answer: D — 45 residues

Multiply 9 × 5.

Q8. Correct answer: A — 4.5 kJ/mol

Energy per mol = 27/6.

Q9. Correct answer: D — 17 mg/mL

Concentration = 68/4.

Q10. Correct answer: A — 13.158 %

Bound percentage = (25/190) × 100.

Q11. Correct answer: A — 1.667 μmol/min

Rate = amount/time = 20/12.

Q12. Correct answer: C — 4 fold

Fold increase = final/initial = 80/20.

Q13. Correct answer: A — 39 molecules

Total = 13 × 3.

Q14. Correct answer: D — 21 chromosomes

Equal distribution = 84/4.

Q15. Correct answer: D — 5.6 μm³

Volume = 56 × 10/100.

Q16. Correct answer: D — 5.8 particles/s

Rate = 29/5.

Q17. Correct answer: A — 5 fold

Fold increase = final/initial = 125/25.

Q18. Correct answer: C — 72 molecules

Total = 18 × 4.

Q19. Correct answer: B — 18.8 chromosomes

Equal distribution = 94/5.

Q20. Correct answer: B — 7.26 μm³

Volume = 66 × 11/100.

Q21. Correct answer: D — 5.667 particles/s

Rate = 34/6.

Q22. Correct answer: A — 6 fold

Fold increase = final/initial = 180/30.

Q23. Correct answer: A — 40 nt/s

Rate = 120/3.

Q24. Correct answer: B — 109 amino acids

(330/3) codons minus one stop codon.

Q25. Correct answer: D — 11 kb

Length = 22/2.

Q26. Correct answer: B — 2.75 per 1000 bases

Rate = 11/4.

Q27. Correct answer: D — 220 nt

Total = 44 × 5.

Q28. Correct answer: D — 42.5 nt/s

Rate = 170/4.

Q29. Correct answer: B — 159 amino acids

(480/3) codons minus one stop codon.

Q30. Correct answer: D — 9 kb

Length = 27/3.

Q31. Correct answer: D — 3.2 per 1000 bases

Rate = 16/5.

Q32. Correct answer: B — 294 nt

Total = 49 × 6.

Q33. Correct answer: B — 44 nt/s

Rate = 220/5.

Q34. Correct answer: D — 20 receptors

Occupied = 100 × 20/100.

Q35. Correct answer: B — 3 fold

Fold = 93/31.

Q36. Correct answer: C — 10.4 substrates/min

Rate = 52/5.

Q37. Correct answer: C — 6.3 cells

Count = 63 × 10/100.

Q38. Correct answer: B — 22 nM

Difference = 44 − 22.

Q39. Correct answer: C — 37.5 receptors

Occupied = 150 × 25/100.

Q40. Correct answer: C — 4 fold

Fold = 144/36.

Q41. Correct answer: A — 9.5 substrates/min

Rate = 57/6.

Q42. Correct answer: A — 7.48 cells

Count = 68 × 11/100.

Q43. Correct answer: B — 54 nM

Difference = 81 − 27.

Q44. Correct answer: C — 60 receptors

Occupied = 200 × 30/100.

Q45. Correct answer: B — 32 cells

Total = 16 × 2.

Q46. Correct answer: A — 9.756 %

Percentage = 4/41 × 100.

Q47. Correct answer: D — 21.429 %

Increase = 3/14 × 100.

Q48. Correct answer: A — 1056 cells

After 5 binary divisions: 33 × 2^5.

Q49. Correct answer: C — 44 units

Remaining = 54 − 10.

Q50. Correct answer: D — 63 cells

Total = 21 × 3.

Q51. Correct answer: B — 10.87 %

Percentage = 5/46 × 100.

Q52. Correct answer: C — 21.053 %

Increase = 4/19 × 100.

Q53. Correct answer: B — 2432 cells

After 6 binary divisions: 38 × 2^6.

Q54. Correct answer: B — 48 units

Remaining = 59 − 11.

Q55. Correct answer: A — 104 cells

Total = 26 × 4.

Q56. Correct answer: B — 6 μmol/min

Rate = 24/4.

Q57. Correct answer: B — 51 mL

Net = 61 − 10.

Q58. Correct answer: C — 8.4 stomata/mm²

Density = 42/5.

Q59. Correct answer: C — 27 units

Absorbed = 135 × 20/100.

Q60. Correct answer: D — 5.8 mm/day

Rate = 29/5.

Q61. Correct answer: A — 5.8 μmol/min

Rate = 29/5.

Q62. Correct answer: C — 55 mL

Net = 66 − 11.

Q63. Correct answer: C — 7.833 stomata/mm²

Density = 47/6.

Q64. Correct answer: D — 40 units

Absorbed = 160 × 25/100.

Q65. Correct answer: A — 5.667 mm/day

Rate = 34/6.

Q66. Correct answer: C — 5.667 μmol/min

Rate = 34/6.

Q67. Correct answer: B — 350 beats

Beats = 70 × 5.

Q68. Correct answer: A — 183 mL

Volume = 61 × 3.

Q69. Correct answer: C — 77 L

Difference = 92 − 15.

Q70. Correct answer: A — 25.75 mL/hour

Rate = 103/4.

Q71. Correct answer: C — 8.4 N/cm²

Stress = force/area = 84/10.

Q72. Correct answer: A — 450 beats

Beats = 75 × 6.

Q73. Correct answer: C — 264 mL

Volume = 66 × 4.

Q74. Correct answer: D — 81 L

Difference = 97 − 16.

Q75. Correct answer: B — 21.6 mL/hour

Rate = 108/5.

Q76. Correct answer: C — 8.091 N/cm²

Stress = force/area = 89/11.

Q77. Correct answer: A — 560 beats

Beats = 80 × 7.

Q78. Correct answer: A — 20 offspring

Count = 100 × 20/100.

Q79. Correct answer: A — 50 %

RF = 31/62 × 100.

Q80. Correct answer: A — 18 offspring

Total ratio parts = 4; minority = 72/4.

Q81. Correct answer: A — 15.873 %

Frequency = 10/63 × 100.

Q82. Correct answer: A — 520 cM

Total = 104 × 5.

Q83. Correct answer: D — 37.5 offspring

Count = 150 × 25/100.

Q84. Correct answer: C — 33.333 %

RF = 36/108 × 100.

Q85. Correct answer: B — 23 offspring

Total ratio parts = 5; minority = 115/5.

Q86. Correct answer: A — 16.176 %

Frequency = 11/68 × 100.

Q87. Correct answer: D — 654 cM

Total = 109 × 6.

Q88. Correct answer: D — 60 offspring

Count = 200 × 30/100.

Q89. Correct answer: C — 10 individuals/species

Average = 50/5.

Q90. Correct answer: D — 11 taxa

Count = 110 × 10/100.

Q91. Correct answer: D — 10.667 substitutions/Myr

Rate = 32/3.

Q92. Correct answer: D — 8.6 individuals/genus

Mean = 43/5.

Q93. Correct answer: A — 11.905 %

Percentage = 10/84 × 100.

Q94. Correct answer: D — 9.167 individuals/species

Average = 55/6.

Q95. Correct answer: D — 24 taxa

Count = 160 × 15/100.

Q96. Correct answer: B — 9.25 substitutions/Myr

Rate = 37/4.

Q97. Correct answer: C — 8 individuals/genus

Mean = 48/6.

Q98. Correct answer: C — 12.36 %

Percentage = 11/89 × 100.

Q99. Correct answer: C — 8.571 individuals/species

Average = 60/7.

Q100. Correct answer: D — 5 %

Growth = 5/100 × 100.

Q101. Correct answer: D — 20.25 organisms/ha

Density = 81/4.

Q102. Correct answer: D — 6.4 prey/day

Rate = 32/5.

Q103. Correct answer: C — 19.417 %

Occupancy = 20/103 × 100.

Q104. Correct answer: A — -39 individuals

Net = immigration − emigration = 5 − 44.

Q105. Correct answer: A — 4 %

Growth = 6/150 × 100.

Q106. Correct answer: C — 17.2 organisms/ha

Density = 86/5.

Q107. Correct answer: B — 6.167 prey/day

Rate = 37/6.

Q108. Correct answer: A — 19.444 %

Occupancy = 21/108 × 100.

Q109. Correct answer: A — -43 individuals

Net = immigration − emigration = 6 − 49.

Q110. Correct answer: A — 3.5 %

Growth = 7/200 × 100.

Q111. Correct answer: D — 96.667 %

Identity = (120-4)/120 × 100.

Q112. Correct answer: A — 255 kb

Total = 51 × 5.

Q113. Correct answer: B — 20.667 records/s

Throughput = 62/3.

Q114. Correct answer: B — 9.709 %

Validated percentage = 10/103 × 100.

Q115. Correct answer: B — 6 gaps/block

Mean = 24/4.

Q116. Correct answer: C — 97.059 %

Identity = (170-5)/170 × 100.

Q117. Correct answer: A — 336 kb

Total = 56 × 6.

Q118. Correct answer: B — 16.75 records/s

Throughput = 67/4.

Q119. Correct answer: C — 10.185 %

Validated percentage = 11/108 × 100.

Q120. Correct answer: D — 5.8 gaps/block

Mean = 29/5.

Q121. Correct answer: B — 20 g/hour

Productivity = 100/5.

Q122. Correct answer: D — 24.691 %

Yield = 20/81 × 100.

Q123. Correct answer: D — 10.5 hours

Time = 42/4.

Q124. Correct answer: A — 91.87 %

Recovery = (123-10)/123 × 100.

Q125. Correct answer: B — 5.8 g/L

Titer = 29/5.

Q126. Correct answer: B — 25 g/hour

Productivity = 150/6.

Q127. Correct answer: A — 24.419 %

Yield = 21/86 × 100.

Q128. Correct answer: D — 9.4 hours

Time = 47/5.

Q129. Correct answer: A — 91.406 %

Recovery = (128-11)/128 × 100.

Q130. Correct answer: C — 5.667 g/L

Titer = 34/6.

Q131. Correct answer: C — 20 %

Efficiency = 20/100 × 100.

Q132. Correct answer: B — 164 barcodes

Total = 41 × 4.

Q133. Correct answer: D — 20.667 samples/hour

Throughput = 62/3.

Q134. Correct answer: B — 43 mg

Remaining = 53 − 10.

Q135. Correct answer: D — 6.8 million reads/sample

Mean = 34/5.

Q136. Correct answer: C — 14 %

Efficiency = 21/150 × 100.

Q137. Correct answer: B — 230 barcodes

Total = 46 × 5.

Q138. Correct answer: C — 16.75 samples/hour

Throughput = 67/4.

Q139. Correct answer: B — 47 mg

Remaining = 58 − 11.

Q140. Correct answer: C — 6.5 million reads/sample

Mean = 39/6.

Q141. Correct answer: B — 5 ×

Magnification = image/object = 500/100.

Q142. Correct answer: C — 20.333 mg/fraction

Mass per fraction = 61/3.

Q143. Correct answer: B — 24.39 %

Positive percentage = 20/82 × 100.

Q144. Correct answer: C — 8.6 mL/min

Throughput = 43/5.

Q145. Correct answer: D — 2.7 AU

Undiluted equivalent = 0.54 × 5.

Q146. Correct answer: A — 6 ×

Magnification = image/object = 900/150.

Q147. Correct answer: C — 16.5 mg/fraction

Mass per fraction = 66/4.

Q148. Correct answer: B — 24.138 %

Positive percentage = 21/87 × 100.

Q149. Correct answer: D — 8 mL/min

Throughput = 48/6.

Q150. Correct answer: A — 3.54 AU

Undiluted equivalent = 0.59 × 6.